CCNA 3 Chapter 1 -2014

1. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?

core layer

2. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

high forwarding rate

support link aggregation

3. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

link aggregation

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

distribution

CCNA 3 Chapter 2 -2014

1. If a network administrator enters these commands on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

global configuration mode

3. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

4. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?

append a space and then ? to the last parameter

CCNA 3 Chapter 3 -2014

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)

The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.

Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

4. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?

Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.

CCNA 3 Chapter 4 -2014

1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?

It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.

This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

4. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?

Change the VTP domain name.

CCNA 3 Chapter 5 -2014

1. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)

bridge priority

base MAC address

2. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)

Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.

Non-root switches each have only one root port.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?

Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.

4. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)

They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.

They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.

CCNA 3 Chapter 6 -2014

1. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

2. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

3. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

4. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with a limited number of VLANs

CCNA 3 Chapter 7 -2014

1. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)

Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.

802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.

2. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it

3. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

4. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers -2014

1. A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?

probing

2. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch F

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two switch interfaces would be RSTP edge ports? (Choose two.)

switch S3, Fa0/5

switch S4, Fa0/2

4. What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?

It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 -2014

1. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

2. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

analog dialup

3. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

low cost

availability

4. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ATM

CCNA 4 Chapter 2 -2014

1. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?

Router(config)# hostname R3

R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco

R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0

R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp

R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0

R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

2. Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?

EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)

3. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.

It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.

It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

4. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?

Two

CCNA 4 Chapter 3 -2014

1. Which three actions might a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

Drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set

Sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link

Sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

2. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast

R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast

R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

4. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

Inverse ARP

LMI status messages

CCNA 4 Chapter 4 -2014

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.

Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.

Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

DoS

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?

to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 -2014

1. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.

2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.

Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 -2014

1. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

IPSec

PPTP

2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

Authentication

Data confidentiality

Data integrity

3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)

AES

DES

RSA

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.